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ysjd.patel
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Posted: 26 Mar 2009 at 14:37 | IP Logged  

thanx divya....it was really helpful...

also one more thing....u edited the above post for some reason or u wasnt sure of held to maturity security ?


Edited by ysjd.patel on 26 Mar 2009 at 14:59
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ysjd.patel
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Posted: 26 Mar 2009 at 14:40 | IP Logged  

thanx divya....really appreciate yr help
one more doubt.....
gain/loss on sale of available for sale securities = sales proceeds - adjusted cost.(like trading securities)???????
correct me if am wrong



Edited by ysjd.patel on 26 Mar 2009 at 14:43
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divyagovil1
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Posted: 26 Mar 2009 at 14:43 | IP Logged  

No, for available-for-sale securities, it works in different way...

let us take the same example,

AFS - Original cost $100

FV at Dec.31, 2008 $80

Unrealized loss goes to Other Comprehensive Income, not IS

Thus, it has not been charged to earnings yet.

AFS sold in 2009 for $90

The entry relating to unrealized loss transferred to OCI is reversed.

We compare the original cost and selling value

Realized loss = 100-90 = $10

This $10 is now charged to earnings, that is, IS

 

 



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divyagovil1
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Posted: 26 Mar 2009 at 14:45 | IP Logged  

For held-to-maturity, I had provided the wrong answer in error. My apologies. As I said in another post after that, the accounting is different for held-to-maturity securities.

The unamortized cost affects the interest expense/revenue for that security.

Don't think too much right now. You would cover it in "Bonds" section of the study material.

 



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Divya - CO State

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REG - 08/29/09 - 95
AUD - 11/21/09 - 92
Ethics - 2011
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ysjd.patel
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Posted: 26 Mar 2009 at 14:52 | IP Logged  

Thanx so much divya.....I really really appreciate...:)
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