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optimistCPA
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Posted: 11 Jul 2009 at 09:49 | IP Logged  

I have a very basic question from Bonds and leases chapter.

When do you use Present value, Fair value or Future value? I came across a question asking for N/P amount in B/S. They have calculated the payments made in Face value (of annuity due) and then recorded it in Present value.

Is it that, the actual amount received or given is always face value and whatever is recorded in B/S is at Present value.

I am not sure whether my question makes sense or not but just I was really confused as when should I calculate using PV table and when not.

I appreciate you answers.

Thanks



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CPA_Starter
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Posted: 13 Jul 2009 at 14:55 | IP Logged  

Jams wrote:
i was stuck with chapter 5 for long time, for some reason i couldn;t understand amortization, warrants and convertible bonds, it was getting frustrating, so i listen to the lectures worked all the MCQ's, but no luck. then i looked into wiley's simulation, wiley had the same MCQ' s as becker, but sims were very good. i started getting an idea about the whole thing, and then i went back to material, and did those Q's again. thank god i get it now. anyone having same trouble just hang on, divide it piece by piece and you will feel better. 

Bondholders get the stated rate of interest, i.e. the amount of bond times
rate stated in the contract.

They why do they say that market rate is the rate of interest actually owned
by the investor?



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Zeratul
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Posted: 13 Jul 2009 at 15:01 | IP Logged  

CPA_Starter wrote:
Bondholders get the stated rate of interest, i.e. the amount of bond times
rate stated in the contract.

They why do they say that market rate is the rate of interest actually owned
by the investor?

Think of it this way.

The rate&maturity value is set by the contract, so those cannot be changed without calling&reissuing the bonds.

The only way the investor can affect his personal ROI is by adjusting his payment for the bond.

For example, if an investor purchases a bond with par value $1,000 and coupon interest of 10% for $800, then the present value of the 10% coupon of 1,000 (100) and the 1,000 maturity value represents a higher return than the investor would have recieved if he had paid for the bond at face. Similarly, if he pays more than $1,000 for the bond, it represents a lower return than if he had purchased it at face. You can verify this with a financial calculator or Excel.

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optimistCPA
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Posted: 24 Jul 2009 at 16:29 | IP Logged  

On June 2 1988 Tory issued 500,000 of 10% 15 year bonds
at par. Interest is payable semiannually on June 1 and
December 1. Bond issue costs are 6000. On June 2 1993,
Tory retired half of the bonds at 98. What is the net
amt. Tory should use in computing Gain/Loss on
retirement?

a. 249,000
b. 248,500
c. 248,000
d. 247,000

Choice "c" is correct. The amount used to compute a gain
or loss on bond retirement is the carrying amount of the
bond and the pro rata portion of bond issue cost.
Original carrying amount     =$500,000
Bond issue cost ($6,000 x 10/15)=(4,000), (Why is it
10/15, shouldn't it be 10/30, and then write-off the pro-
rata amount, thus giving the answer as c. 247,000)
Net carrying amount 6-2-93     = 496,000
Portion retired          ;           ;       x  &nbs p;  50% =
Amount used to compute gain/loss     $248,000

(Why is it 10/15, shouldn't it be 10/30, and then
write-off the pro-rata amount)


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Payal123
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Posted: 24 Jul 2009 at 17:07 | IP Logged  



Bonds are for 15 yrs & are retired after 5 yrs. So uammortized bond issue cost will be for 10 yrs which is 6000 *10/15. = 4000.

Only half are retired so 2000 will be included in calculating the carrying amount of Bond.


Bond carrying price:

Bond face value -           ;      $250,000
Less: Unamortized Discount - 0
Add: Unamortized Premium  - 0
Less: Uamortized discount.  - $2,000
=           ;           ;           ;         $248,000


i hope this helps. good luck






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