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AccountingNerd8
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Posted: 08 Jan 2010 at 12:45 | IP Logged  

EAK5455, ok i think i understand what you're saying. 

CPA0123, here's the question:

Dale's distributive share of income from the calendar-year partnership of Dale & Eck was $50,000 in 2008.  On 12/15/08, Dale, a cash-basis taxpayer, received a $27,000 distribution of the partnership's 2008 income, with the $23,000 balance paid to Dale in Feb 2009.  In addition, Dale received a $10,000 interest-free laon from the partnership in 2008.  This $10,000 is to be offest against Dale's share of 2009 partnership income.  What total amount of partnership income is taxable to Dale in 2008. 

Answer: The requirement is to determine the total amount of partnership income that is taxable to Dale in 2008.  A parntership functions as a pass-through entity and its items of income and deduction are passed trough to partners on the last day of the partnership's taxable year.  Here, Dale is taxed on his $50,000 distributive share of partnership income for 2008, even though $23,000 was not received until 2009.  The $10,000 interest-free loan does not effect the pass-through of income for 2008, and $10,000 offest against Dale's distributibe share of partnership income for 2009 will not effect the pass-through of that income in 2009.



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EAK5455
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Posted: 08 Jan 2010 at 12:47 | IP Logged  

Basically, the $10,000 interest-free loan is thrown into
the question as an attempt to throw you off course in
calculating the basis.
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AccountingNerd8
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Posted: 08 Jan 2010 at 12:53 | IP Logged  

gahhhh.......

__________________
I'M DONE!!!!!!
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REG- February 26,2010 PASS
AUD- July 7, 2010 PASS
FAR- February 11, 2011 PASS! Last attempt before BEC expired
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cpa0123
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Posted: 08 Jan 2010 at 13:09 | IP Logged  

i am more confused now. If it says that $10,000 loan would be offset against partnership income in 2009, why wouldn't it affect basis in 2009? This means that $10,000 is to be treated as share of partnership income only, isn't it so?? (For eg, if his share for 2009 profits is $40,000 he would be paid only $30,000 but the entire $40,000 is going to be taxable). My concern is how could this be offset with his share in partnership income?



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EAK5455
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Posted: 08 Jan 2010 at 13:23 | IP Logged  

Following up with your example of 2009 share of profits
equal to $40,000, remember that a partnership does NOT
have to distribute income to its partners.

The $40,000 entire share would be taxable but the
partnership is not required to make any distribution to
him, although they have floated him $10,000 through a
loan.

No matter how it gets sliced, the partner will be
responsible for $40,000 worth of income on his personal
return, regardless of what is actually paid out to him by
the partnership. Thus, the "$10,000 offest against
Dale's distributibe share of partnership income for 2009
will not effect the pass-through of that income in 2009."
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