Joined: 17 Nov 2009 Location: United States
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Posted: 08 Mar 2010 at 16:23 | IP Logged
ael719 wrote:
By not including PS Div in DEPS, I meant it can be negated in that it is subtracted for BEPS and added back for DEPS
a scenario presenting these conditions would be one in which they declared and paid a stock dividend say on 4/1 to its convertible preferred stock, and in 7/1 all p/s was converted into shares of c/s. At the end of the year computing BEPS the dividend paid is subtracted, whereas for DEPS the div. would be added back to NI (and the additional shares of common stock from the conversion at 7/1 would be weighted as of 1/1 just like in the example we worked on before)...
Joined: 31 Aug 2009
Online Status: Offline Posts: 174
Posted: 06 May 2010 at 18:38 | IP Logged
MARBNYC wrote:
Right. They converted all the bonds, therefore are no other instruments outstanding that could dilute earnings per share outstanding at year end. So why ask to solve for DEPS?
I have the same question. Why ask for DEPS? Sincerely, I think the question is wrong.
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Topic: Weighted Average - WACSO
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