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gottobecpa
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Posted: 09 Apr 2010 at 12:29 | IP Logged  

Original cost         &n bsp; $800,000

Dep (2007 & 2008)     ($200,000)

Carrying value 2009     600,000

Impaired by         &nbs p;      (400,000)

New carrying value      200,000

$400,000 is added to accumulated dpreciation, so at the beg of 2009 accumulated dep will have bal of $600,000 and $200,000 will be recovered in next 5 yrs. Remember its permenantly impaired not totally impaired.

I hope that helps.

 



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venchlu
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Posted: 09 Apr 2010 at 12:32 | IP Logged  

Thanks so much..u did clear my points...wordings of the question is killing me...thx again.

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venchlu
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Posted: 09 Apr 2010 at 12:33 | IP Logged  

one more - i guess the calculation should be

Original cost         &n bsp;         &n bsp;  $800,000

Dep (2006 , 2007 & 2008)     ($300,000)

Carrying value 2009     500,000

Impaired by         & ;nbs p;      (300,000)

New carrying value      200,000



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cpa_guy
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Posted: 09 Apr 2010 at 12:39 | IP Logged  

CV of Long-Lived Asset (Cost - Accum Depr) = 500
Undiscounted or Expected Future Cash Flows = 200
Loss on Impairment = 340
FV of Asset = 160
Account Debit Credit
Loss on Impairment 340
Accumulated Depreciation 340
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gottobecpa
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Posted: 09 Apr 2010 at 12:47 | IP Logged  

Oh, i didn't calculate properly. You are right, i did mess up the calculation in hurry, lol........i was doing something else and quickly replied, , but so long you know the logic, you should be fine



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