Posted: 01 Feb 2012 at 10:10 | IP Logged
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beause i have encountered a question and the question said " XX has a persoanl used furniture purchsed for $10,000 4 years ago. And now is sold for $7,500."
the answer said that the loss is 2,500 and also said this is a personal loss, so it is not deductible. Here is my question, the furniture is a personal property and also for personal use. Why can't i call it capital loss instead of personal loss? On the other hand, 100 shares of stock are purchased and sold at a loss, then we can call that a capital loss. why not furniture? Maybe this question is silly, but i am very confused!!! Please help me.BTW i am using becker review.
Thx
james
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