lostdark Newbie
Joined: 19 Jul 2012
Online Status: Offline Posts: 2
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Posted: 19 Jul 2012 at 18:08 | IP Logged
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Hi Everyone,
I understand fees (for example, origination) have to be amortized per
FAS 91. However, what happens when the debtor lets say pays down
60% of the loan in year 5 (10 year loan) instead of the whole thing in year
10. Does that change the amortization schedule? To me, it would not make
sense to keep amortizing at the same amount if the loan principle is less.
I would assume there is much more P&L in year 5?
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