Posted: 06 Feb 2009 at 12:57 | IP Logged
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Jams this is the way I look at it.
First one is a capital lease which increase the asset account at the Financial-wide level AND the PV of lease payments will increase the liability. (Increase in both). Only at the Wide level, the gov. funds will not book any of this as asset or liability.
Second one the asset purchased is include in an “estimated” – budgetary account. All they have to do is reduce the liability they created when booking this asset purchase-budget and leave the asset alone, no-effect. I think that is why the said "they used cash available"
I just finished F8 two days ago and that was one of my "marked" question. Anyone has a diff opinion?
Thanks,
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