Posted: 28 Sep 2009 at 17:21 | IP Logged
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Here is one question from becker
1. DQZ Telecom is considering a project for the coming year, which will cost $50 million. DQZ plans to use the following combination of debt and equity to finance the investment.
- Issue $15million of 20-year bonds at a price of 101, with a coupon rate of 8 percent, and flotation costs of 2 percent of par
- use $35 million of funds generated from earnings
The equity market is expected to earn 12%, U.S. treasury bonds are currently yielding 5%, the beta coefficient for DQZ is estimated to be 0.60. DQZ is subject to an effective corporate income rate of 40%. Assume that the after-tax cost of debt is 7% and the cost of equity is 12%. Determine the WACC.
The answer from becker is 10.5%. I can understand how they get the answer. but there are two points I am confused.
1. they have given the information about calculating the cost of debt and cost of retained earning seperately. Why could not we use them to calculate? In fact, I got different cost of debt and cost of retained earning from them.
Cost of RE = 5% + 0.6*(12%-5%) = 9.2%
Cost of Debt = [8% + (100-99)/20]/[(100+99)/2]*(1-0.4)= 4.9%
What is wrong with these calculation?
2. for the cost of equity, should it be after-tax cost of equity or just cost of equity. I remember that tax should not be considered. but in another becker question, it asked about WACC and give the information about after-tax cost of debt of 9% and an after-tax cost of equity of 15%, the calculation is the same as the above one. I am so confused about it
Anyone please help?? Thanks!!!!
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