Let me see if I can explain this.  It's probably easier for you to plug in numbers.  Let's say:Net Income = 100,000.  Decrease in AR = 50,000 and Decrease in Accrued Expense = 40,000. 

To convert Accural to Cash, a Decrease in AR would be an added to net income and a decrease in accrued expense would be subtracted to net income. 

Accounts Receivable

 100,000 NI + 50000 = 150,000 cash basis

Accrued Expense

 100,000 NI - 40,000 = 60,000 cash basis

So to answer the question, cash basis of 60k is understated compared to accrual basis for accrued expense.  For Account receivable, cash basis of 150k is overstated. 

I really hope my explanation makes sense.