Posted: 11 Feb 2009 at 13:25 | IP Logged
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I'm posting this because I believe there are those of you that are more knowledgeable of tax issues than I. Here is the scenario:
Taxpayer's parents passed away several years ago. Taxpayer continued to pay the mortgage and taxes on the home. Supposedly there was a will, however, the county records still show the parents as the home owners and thus are sending tax bills addressed to the deceased parents. Apparently, the property was to be given to the taxpayer AND the taxpayer's sibling. First question is, can the taxpayer claim the interest/taxes AND what steps must the taxpayer (and sibling) take to get the property in their name before they sell the home?
Edited by Bubzeebub192 on 11 Feb 2009 at 23:06
__________________ REG - Passed
BEC - Passed
AUD - Passed
FAR - Passed
A very long journey has come to an end! Thank you God!
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