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Subject Topic: Effective interest rate Question (Topic Closed Topic Closed) Post ReplyPost New Topic
  
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hengirl03
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Posted: 25 Feb 2008 at 20:57 | IP Logged  

Would somebody explain to me why Becker is using 50,000 to multiply it by the .03 interest rate?  thanks!

A company obtained a short-term bank loan of $500,000 at an annual interest rate of eight percent.  As a condition of the loan, the company is required to maintain a compensating balance of $100,000 in its checking account.  The checking account earns interest at an annual rate of three percent.  Ordinarily, the company maintains a balance of $50,000 in its account for transaction purposes.  What is the effective interest rate of the loan?


Becker Explanation:
Choice 4 (8.56%) is correct.  To calculate the effective annualized percentage cost of financing:

Step 1    Calculate the actual finance charge:
    Actual interest (P x Rate x Time)
Step 2    Subtract any interest earned (if any) on additional required compensating balance:

$50,000 x .03 = $1,500
Net interest cost = 40,000 - 1,500 = $38,500

Step 3    Divide the difference (net interest) by the loan proceeds the company has use of:

    Additional compensating
$500,000    -    balance above normal balance    =    $450,000

    38,500 ÷ 450,000 = 8.555% = 8.56% (Periodic Rates)
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bigtree
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Posted: 25 Feb 2008 at 21:54 | IP Logged  

50,000 is the extra the company must carry in its account per the terms of the loan. (100,000 is required less 50,000 it normally carries). Multiply this 50,000 by the 3% the company will earn in interest because this interest income reduces the interest expense it will pay on the loan.

Gosh, I hope that made sense. :)

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lakshmip
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Posted: 25 Feb 2008 at 22:08 | IP Logged  

Principal available = face amount of loan - compensatory balance

principal available = 500,000-100,000 = 400,000

But Principal available in this case is 450,000 because 50,000 is for transaction purposes which comes under available balance

Interest = 500,000 X 8% X 1 = 40,000

Interest earned on 50,000 is 50000X 0.3 = 1500

40000 - 1500 = 38,500

Effective interest rate =

Interest paid / Principal availbale = 38500 / 450000 = 8.55 %

 



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hengirl03
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Posted: 25 Feb 2008 at 23:33 | IP Logged  

thanks!
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YoungRamsis
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Posted: 07 Apr 2008 at 18:42 | IP Logged  

because it the additional amount that will be maintained in the company's checking account to get the loan
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