Posted: 28 May 2009 at 13:31 | IP Logged
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The interest rate on convertible debt is usually lower than nonconvertible debt because of the value of the conversion feature.
Could someone please explain this statement? It doesn't make sense to me. Thanks!
(It seems to me that the interest rate should be higher. I think if someone issues you debt and you have the option to convert it, they would want to charge you a higher rate since you have that extra option).
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