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Subject Topic: Non-interest-bearing note question (Topic Closed Topic Closed) Post ReplyPost New Topic
  
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Duane
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Joined: 02 Jul 2009
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Posted: 02 Jul 2009 at 16:09 | IP Logged  

On January 1, 2007, Derby Company lent $20,000 cash to Elliot Company. The promissory note made by Elliot did not bear interest and was due on December 31, 2008. No other rights or priviliges were exchanged. The prevailing interest for a loan of this type was 12%. The present value of $1 for two periods at 12% is 0.797. Derby should recognize interest income in 2007 of
a. $0
b. $1,913
c. $2,030
d. $2,400

Book answer: a. $0. "$20,000 is both the PV and the FV of this note."
My answer: b. $1,913. I don't know why $20,000 would be the PV if the market rate of interest is 12%. The PV of the note at the market rate is 20,000 * 0.797 = 15,940. 12% interest for the first year based on this PV is 15,940 * .12 = $1,913. Why would you not discount the note to PV?
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rumboj
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Joined: 19 Jun 2009
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Posted: 03 Jul 2009 at 00:33 | IP Logged  

Well, I had to flip to Unit 6 of my Gleim for this one, which is sad because I'm taking the exam on the 17th.  Here's the deal: if the note is exchanged strictly for cash and no other rights or priviliges were exchanged, then the proceeds reflect both the PV and FV of the note.  Therefore, there would be no discount on the note and the effective interest method is irrelevant.  So no interest income would be earned. The writer of the note made it out for 20000 and that is exactly what he will receive.

Now, if the note was not solely for cash but was for PPE, goods, services, etc, then the PV calculation and hence recognition of interest income would be appropriate.



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AFrieds
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Posted: 03 Jul 2009 at 21:22 | IP Logged  

Also keep in mind that loans for a year or less in the ordinary course of business do not need to have imputed interest Hope  this helps!
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