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Subject Topic: partnership Q (Becker hw prob) (Topic Closed Topic Closed) Post ReplyPost New Topic
  
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rainnyl
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Posted: 30 Dec 2009 at 23:00 | IP Logged  

Below is the Q&A for a partnership- liquidation problem.

----------------------------------------

The following condensed balance sheet is presented for the partnership of Smith and Jones, who share profits and losses in the ratio of 60:40, respectively:

Other assets   $450,000

Smith, loan        20,000

                         $470,000


Accounts payable   $120,000

Smith, capital          ; ; 195,000

Jones, capital          ; ; 155,000

                                 $470,000


The partners have decided to liquidate the partnership. If the other assets are sold for $385,000, what amount of the available cash should be distributed to Smith?


SOLUTION:  $136,000 is distributed to Smith.

Beg bal              Sale     Loss     AP       Bal

Cash                   0                         385                    (120)        265

Other assets     450                        (385)       (65)                      0

Loan                   20                        (20)                                    0

AP                       120                                                (120)       0

Smith                  195                       (20)       (39)                    136

Jones                 155                        (26)                                  129

----------------------------------------------------------

I dont understand why 136,000 was distributed, not 159,000.  Cash left over for distribution totaled 265,000 (which I was able to get), but if it was a 60/40 distribution ratio why did Smith get 136,000?  136,000 is 51%.

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nkocpa
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Posted: 31 Dec 2009 at 13:04 | IP Logged  

The 60/40 is for partnership profit and loss. The cash is capital and should be split according to partner capital accounts.
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cpa0123
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Posted: 31 Dec 2009 at 13:57 | IP Logged  

                          Smith         Jones            Total
Capital          ;       195,000      155,000      350,000
Loss on sale          (39,000)     (26,000)     (65,000)
Balance          ;     156,000      129,000     285,000
Loan to Smith
(cash available    (20,000)        Nil           (20,000)
is $265,000)
Final Balance       136,000      129,000      265,000

Cash available is only $265,000, since there is an obvious shortage, loan/advance given to Smith should be netted off against his capaital balance. Therefore his balance is now $136,000 while Jones's balance is $129,000. This is the final amount that would be paid to settle the partners. Cash is available fully to settle now, so you don't have to apply profit/loss sharing ratio. If you do that, Smith would end up getting a higher amount while Jones's capital would still show some balance to be paid. It is a liquidation.

Hope you got it.


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rainnyl
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Posted: 03 Jan 2010 at 22:48 | IP Logged  

Thank you both so much for all your help!  So we basically pay back the partners based on how much capital they have in their accounts, not based on the %. 

Let's say the partnership had 400 in cash to distribute, and had extra money left over after paying off the capital accounts.  In this scenario, will the extra moola be distributed under the P/L %?


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cpa0123
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Posted: 03 Jan 2010 at 23:29 | IP Logged  

Yes, also if they are short of cash, the same ratio will be applied. Here, they had as much as they were liable to distribute.

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