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brightspark312
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Posted: 06 Jan 2010 at 10:52 | IP Logged  

While I just finised the live course on R1 (Becker), I have a question on the lecture and the material:

On pg. 27, as for the profit and loss of business, the teacher emphasized that the Expenses should be "incurred and paid". However, since the taxpayer can choose the accural basic as their accounting method, why the expenses must be paid in order to recognize on tax?

Could anyone explain the contradiction? Thanks in advance!



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cpa0123
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Posted: 06 Jan 2010 at 11:36 | IP Logged  

I may want to try answering this -
The reason why this looks contradicting is that the IRS expects an individual to pay taxes on all income earned, regardless of when payment is received. Similarly, it allows you to take deduction of those expenses that you incur, again regardless of when you pay them.
So in the sentence above, where you mentioned expenses must be incurred & paid, emphasize on 'incurred' & paid. Point here is that if you have paid something in advance, it does not qualify as a deduction, because you must have 'incurred' it. However the same is not the case with revenue. For revenue, even if you receive in advance, it is subject to tax. In short, pay tax on revenue if you earn or receive in advance and deduct expense if you just incur them! (no advance payments deducted). Note that taxes are deducted in the year paid (This does not follow matching concept. They are deductible in the year taxes become due & are actually paid).
Somebody correct me if i am wrong. And thanks for bringing this up. Good question!


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brightspark312
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Posted: 06 Jan 2010 at 15:36 | IP Logged  

Thanks cpa0123!



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EAK5455
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Posted: 08 Jan 2010 at 10:55 | IP Logged  

A couple of common examples:

When a taxpayer receives advanced rental payments from a
tenant, the taxpayer recognizes the income in the year
received rather than in the year earned.

When a taxpayer prepays interest on a loan, he cannot
deduct that interest expense until the year in which his
loan is actually assessed an interest charge.
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brightspark312
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Posted: 11 Jan 2010 at 16:00 | IP Logged  

Here I come again -

Becker R2, class questions #9,CPA-01926

Taylor, an unmarried taxpayer, had $90,000 in adjusted gross income for 20x4. During 20x4, Taylor donated land to a church and made no other contributions. Taylor purchased the land in 1994 as an investment for $14,000. The land's fair market value was $25,000 on the day of the donation. What is the maximum amount of charitable contribution that Taylor may deduct as an itmized deduction for the land donation in 20x4?

a.25,000

b.14,000

c.11,000

d.0

Ans:a.

What confuses me is on R2, pg.24. In the paragraph of 5-b-(1): A gift must be in the form of cash or (FMV) property. The deduction for contributed property is usually measured by the lesser of the property's basis or its fair value market at the time the contribution is made.

According to above, the basis for the land donated by Taylor is 14,000, which is lesser than the FMV 25,000 at the time of donation. The deduction should be measured at the lesser of basis, not the FMV. However, the answer is a, FMV $25,000. Do I misunderstand anything on this?

Thanks for any help!



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