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Subject Topic: highly complex MC (Topic Closed Topic Closed) Post ReplyPost New Topic
  
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Fella
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Posted: 14 Aug 2012 at 16:07 | IP Logged  

I cannot understand the explanation of this answer:
On 06/30/01 a partner retired; at that time his capital
account was $50,000 and his share of liabilities was
$30,000. Partnership pays him a liquidating $5,000 a
month for 18 months and his share of liabilities.

What income should he report in Yr1 and Yr2

Answer: Yr 1 $0   Yr 2 $40,000 capital gain

explanation:

total basis in partnership $80,000
less: 5,000 x 6 months     (30,000)
less: liabilities        & nbsp; (30,000)
Basis at the end of Yr1   = 20,000
No capital gain Yr1

Yr2 5,000 x 12 months      ($60,000)
Negative basis         & nbsp;   (40,000)
Capital gain Yr 2           ; 40,000

I understand the calculations but here is the question:


why do they deduct $30,000 debt relief in Yr1 and not in
Yr 2?? I calculated as: 80,000 - 30,000 = 50,000 basis at
the end of Yr1 then
50,000 beginning basis in Yr 2 - $30,000 relieved
liabilities - cash received 60,000 = 40,000 capital gain

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yoursangoma
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Posted: 15 Aug 2012 at 10:55 | IP Logged  

My guess is that due to the fact that he retired in Yr 1, his share of liabilities was waived at that time, thus the $30k reduction in his basis in Yr 1.

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FARleft
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Posted: 15 Aug 2012 at 16:47 | IP Logged  

General Rule: Liabilities increases the partner(s) basis. When liquidating, liabilities are paid off first and any remaining asset is distributed to the partner(s).

In this question, the $30,000 liability must be taken out first before anything else, then the basis is taken out and whatever remains is above and beyond what he had in the partnership.

Basis is $50,000 including the $30,000 liability (NOT $50,000 +$30,000 as this is incorrect).

$50,000 basis including $30,000 liability : $5000*6months =$30,000 taken out first.

Basis remaining is $20,000 and liquidating partner got $5000*12=$60,000 in 2nd year after receiving his $20,000 investment back he must report $40,000 taxable income of $40,000.

Calculations: 18*$5000 =$90,000

less liability of         &nbs p;      $30,000 = $60,000

Remaining basis is $50,000-$30,000)=$20,000

Taxable income $60,000-$20,000)=$40,000

Stick with the basics and General Rules on these types of questions.

All the best

 

 

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Fella
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Posted: 16 Aug 2012 at 11:49 | IP Logged  

Hi FARleft,

this questions stated that the 30K liabilities were in
addition to his partnership basis of 50K. In their answer
it also points at 80K. Is that incorrect?

Thank you
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FARleft
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Posted: 16 Aug 2012 at 18:09 | IP Logged  

Fella

This question may contain an error in the initial explanation to the answer.

Apply this technique in liquidating a partner's or partnership share:

General Rule:Basis -Payment =capital gain or capital loss

If basis is $80,000 and partner receives $90,000 in liquidating then he has $10,000 capital gain. Therefore if the liability is in addition to the $50,000 basis would be $80,000 and retiring partner capital gain would be $10,000 not $40,000.

Remember that liability increases the partners basis proportionally and paying off the liability reduces the partners basis likewise.

With the answer choice being $40,000 capital gain then the $30,000 liability must be included in the total basis of $50,000 and not be in addition to that.

Always pay off liabilities first though.

Regards

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