Posted: 29 Aug 2009 at 22:05 | IP Logged
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Taken from Becker ch. 5 hw:
Water Control, Inc. manufactures pumps & uses a standard cost system. The standard factory OH costs per water pump are based on DLH's and are shown below:
VOH (4hrs @ $8/hr) $32
FOH (4hrs @ $*5/hr) 20
Total OH cost /unit 52
* Based on capacity of 100,000 DLH's/month
Following info is available for mo. of Nov.
-22,000 pumps were produced although 25,000 had been scheduled for production.
-94,000 DLH's were worked at a total cost of $940,000.
-The standard DL rate is $9/hr.
-The standard DL time per unit is four hrs.
-VOH costs were $740,000
-FOH costs were $540,000
The FOH spending variance for Nov. was:
A: 40K Unfavorable
B: 70K Unfavorable
C: 240K Unfavorable
D: 15K Favorable
And the answer is "a" $40K Unfavorable.
They took --
Actual Fixed overhead $540,000
Budgeted fixed overhead-
(100,000 DL hrs. x $5/hr) 500,000
Unfavorable Variance 40,000
Okay - I get that the spending variance is the difference between Actual OH and Budgeted actual OH (based on Actual hrs.)
Isn't the formula for the "actual hrs standard" = Standard FOH rate x ACTUAL DLH hrs ??? If so why not take $5 x 94,000 hrs. of labor. to come up w/ 70K unfavorable as the answer?
Then there is another question: CPA-03845 that doessss use the 94,000 for actual hrs. worked.
I'm sooo confused! Help!
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