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jsn123
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Joined: 22 Dec 2009
Location: United States
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Posts: 107
Posted: 11 Feb 2010 at 08:55 | IP Logged  

Can anybody explain me why the answer is C?

Able, Baker, and Cannon are partners. Able gets 70
percent of the profits and losses and has a capital
balance of $100,000. Baker gets 20 percent of the
profits and losses and has a capital balance of $60,000.
Cannon gets 10 percent of the profits and losses and has
a capital balance of $10,000. The partnership has
$170,000 in assets but no liabilities. The partnership
is being liquidated. Assets of $70,000 are sold for
$40,000 in cash.   Which of the partners gets this
available cash?


A Able gets $28,000, Baker gets $8,000, and Cannon gets
$4,000

B Able gets $13,333, Baker gets $13,333, and Cannon gets
$13,334

C Able gets $6,667 and Baker gets $33,333

D Able gets $20,000 and Baker gets $20,000


Answer is C because The actual sale of these assets
created a $30,000 loss ($70,000 less $40,000). That loss
is assigned 70 percent to Able ($21,000 bringing the
capital down to $79,000), 20 percent to Baker ($6,000
bringing the capital down to $54,000), and 10 percent to
Cannon ($3,000 bringing the capital down to $7,000). To
decide what to do with the available cash, the
partnership must assume that the remaining $100,000 in
assets ($170,000 less $70,000) are a total loss. In that
case, this $100,000 anticipated loss is assigned 70
percent to Able ($70,000 bringing the capital down to
$9,000), 20 percent to Baker ($20,000 bringing the
capital down to $34,000), and 10 percent to Cannon
($10,000 bringing the capital down to a negative $3,000).
Then, finally, the remaining negative $3,000 balance in
Cannon’s capital must be divided between Able and Baker
based on their relative profit and loss ratios or 70/90
of the $3,000 to Able or $2,333 and 20/90 of the $3,000
to Baker or $667. This final allocation reduces Able’s
capital from $9,000 to $6,667 and Baker’s capital from
$34,000 to $33,333. That is how the available cash is
distributed.

Any advise is highly appreciated.
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RR_CPA
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Joined: 02 Mar 2009
Location: Canada
Online Status: Offline
Posts: 338
Posted: 11 Feb 2010 at 12:14 | IP Logged  

Try in this way to understand...
Loss from sale       $30,000 (Assets 70,000 - 40,000)
Other Loss     100,000 (as total assets were 170,000) sold for 40,000.
A B C
Contribution 100,000 60,000 10,000
Loss on Sale (30,000) (21,000) (6,000) (3,000)
79,000 54,000 7,000
Other Loss (100,000) (70,000)

(20,000)

(10,000)
Remaining 9,000 34,000 (3,000)
As this is partnership each partner is liable for loss, 3000 loss of Cannon will distribute to A & B
Cannon Loss         3000X70/90% 3000X20/90% 0
(2,333) (667)
Remaining to A & B only 6,667 33,333

 

Nothing for C.

Read explaination again now.

 

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