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Subject Topic: EPS (becker) (Topic Closed Topic Closed) Post ReplyPost New Topic
  
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dlwtistyle
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Posted: 27 Jun 2008 at 15:57 | IP Logged  

Ute Co. had the following capital structure during 19X3 and 19X4:

Preferred stock, $10 par, 4% cumulative, 25,000 shares issued and outstanding $250,000

Common stock, $5 par, 200,000 shares issued and outstanding 1,000,000

Ute reported net income of $500,000 for the year ended December 31, 19X4. Ute paid no preferred dividends during 19X3 and paid $16,000 in preferred dividends during 19X4. In its December 31, 19X4, income statement, what amount should Ute report as basic earnings per share?

a. 2.42

b. 2.45

c. 2.48

d. 2.50

Choice "b" is correct. $2.45 earnings per share.

19X4

 $ 500,000

Less: Cumulative preferred Stock dividend "requirement" ($10 par x 25,000 shs x 4%) (10,000)

Income available to common shares 490,000

Divide by average common shares O/S ÷ 200,000

Basic earnings per common share $ 2.45

Note: Since the preferred stock dividends are cumulative, when they are declared or paid is not relevant.

 

I see why they are subtracting 10,000, but why did they ignore the $16,000 preferred div. payed in 19x4?  I thought you were supposed to subtract preferred dividends from NI.

The only reason i can think of is b/c the 16,000 is a non-cumulative dividend, and if it was, the problem did not state it.

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whoomp123
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Posted: 27 Jun 2008 at 16:38 | IP Logged  

I had the same question in Gleim and their explanation is you only subtract the potential preferred dividends of the current year. Hence they subtract 10,000 instead of the 16,000.

My thinking in helping myself in understanding this is eps is a measure of the current year.  Only current preferred dividends would be paid from current earnings and cumulative dividends from the past would be paid from past earning aka retained earnings.


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dlwtistyle
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Posted: 27 Jun 2008 at 16:45 | IP Logged  

i understand that you subtract current preferred dividends for the current year, but if you look at the question, the 16,000 preferred dividends is from 19x4, which is the current year.  am i missing something completely here?
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Romain
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Posted: 27 Jun 2008 at 22:47 | IP Logged  

Only current year's preference dividend should be apart of EPS calculation.  If you see previous years' preference dividends, these are just distractors and should be ignored.
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whoomp123
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Posted: 27 Jun 2008 at 23:13 | IP Logged  

"Cumulative preferred dividends, whether or not declared, are included in the calculation. However, only an amount equal to the dividend that should be declared for the current year is included."
-Gleim


Edited by whoomp123 on 27 Jun 2008 at 23:18
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