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taxygood Newbie
Joined: 14 Apr 2009 Location: United States
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Posted: 16 Apr 2009 at 18:19 | IP Logged
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Lamd Co. has $5,000,000 of 8% convertible bonds outstanding. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into 30 shares of $30 par value common stock. The bonds pay interest on January 31 and July 31. On July 31, 2004, the holders of $1,500,000 bonds exercised the conversion privilege. On that date the market price of the bonds was 105 and the market price of the common stock was $36. The total unamortized bond premium at the date of conversion was $350,000. Klugg should record, as a result of this conversion, a
a. credit of $255,000 to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par.
b. credit of $225,000 to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par.
c. credit of $105,000 to Premium on Bonds Payable.
d. loss of $15,000.
how to record this conversion
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cinnamon Major Contributor
Joined: 12 Aug 2008
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Posted: 16 Apr 2009 at 19:19 | IP Logged
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Hey, this must be the first question that you post and I might have an idea on it!
DR Bond 1,500,000
DR Unamortized premium 105,000 (350,000/5,000,000*1,500,000)
CR C/S 1,350,000 (1500bonds*30shares*30 par)
CR APIC 255,000 (plug to balance)
I have assumed that the book value method is used, because under the par method I think it would be:
DR 1,500,000-BOND
DR 105,000 -premium
DR loss 15,000 (plug to balance)
CR C/S 1,350,000
CR APIC 270,000 (1500bonds*30shares*6 in excess of par)
So I think that the question is not so clear because it does not mention which method we should use
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taxygood Newbie
Joined: 14 Apr 2009 Location: United States
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Posted: 16 Apr 2009 at 19:40 | IP Logged
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Thank you Cinnamon
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divyagovil1 Major Contributor
Joined: 30 Jan 2009 Location: India
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Posted: 16 Apr 2009 at 20:07 | IP Logged
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cinnamon wrote:
So I think that the question is not so clear because it does not mention which method we should use
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Just to add on, "book value" method is a GAAP method... so, may be in such a case, we would go for this method..
In case, we face a similar question in the exam, so which method we would go for should be clear... Taxygood, do confirm from the correct answer given in your home test that which method was used.
Thanks!
__________________ Divya - CO State
Passed using Becker Review :
FAR - 04/11/09 - 94
BEC - 05/30/09 - 86
REG - 08/29/09 - 95
AUD - 11/21/09 - 92
Ethics - 2011
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Jams Major Contributor
Joined: 26 Apr 2007 Location: United States
Online Status: Offline Posts: 547
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Posted: 16 Apr 2009 at 21:43 | IP Logged
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cinnamon wrote:
Hey, this must be the first question that you post and I might have an idea on it!
DR Bond 1,500,000
DR Unamortized premium 105,000 (350,000/5,000,000*1,500,000)
CR C/S 1,350,000 (1500bonds*30shares*30 par)
CR APIC 255,000 (plug to balance)
I have assumed that the book value method is used, because under the par method I think it would be:
DR 1,500,000-BOND
DR 105,000 -premium
DR loss 15,000 (plug to balance)
CR C/S 1,350,000
CR APIC 270,000 (1500bonds*30shares*6 in excess of par)
So I think that the question is not so clear because it does not mention which method we should use |
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i did everything right, except for the part of B/P. i though its B/P Dr-1,575,000 (1,500,000*105%), can anyone explain this part. i know it might sound stupid but i am not getting it. why are they giving so much information??
__________________ jams
BEC-76
AUD-80
REG-84
FAR-81 !!!
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