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Jams
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Posted: 21 Apr 2009 at 13:51 | IP Logged  

i was going through the becker sims for consoliodations-2nd one, i am getting confused with the inventory mark up cost.

During 20X4 Cain purchased merchandise from Frey at an aggregate invoice price of 180000 which included a 100% markup on Frey's cost.  At December 31 20X4 Cain owed Frey 86000 on these purchases and 36000 of this merchandise remained in Cain's inventory.

6) Eliminate intercompany sales

DR Sales 180,000

CR Cost of goods sold 162,000

CR Inventories 18,000

Intercompany sales is given, but cost of goods sold and inventory adjustments are computed.

Ending inventory at retail 36,000

Eliminate mark-up (50%) 18,000

(mark up of 100% so 50% of ending inventory balance is mark-up)

i dont get why are we elimination 50%...plz help me.



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cinnamon
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Posted: 21 Apr 2009 at 14:19 | IP Logged  

Since sales are 180,000 and include a 100% markup on cost this means that cost of sales for Frey must have been 90,000 (half the amount). Think it like this: When a merchant sells you something at double the price, you think: "this merchant made a 100% profit on this" To this amount you have to add the cost of sales of the subsidiary which is 180,000 purchased-36,000 at ending inventory=144,000 sold. The intercompany profit in these 144,000 is again halfed, so 72,000.

90,000(PARENT)+72,000(SUB)=162,000 total to be eliminated

Inventory is 36000/2=18,000 (the profit of 100% is eliminated in ending inventory)

Hope that helps

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Jams
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Posted: 21 Apr 2009 at 15:12 | IP Logged  

thanks cinnamon i get it now..it was silly, i dont know why i was getting hung up on this one. i am going crazy today, since only 9 days left for the final exam. i was practicing sims on CBT and the tab wherin you insert numbers was not working, so i callep up the tech guy and he asked me mam, it looks like you have your num-lock on..and i went ohhhh yeah u r right..hahahah.

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