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Naifation
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Posted: 03 May 2011 at 05:20 | IP Logged  

In its cash flow statement for the current year, Ness Co. reported cash paid for interest of $70,000.  Ness did not capitalize any interest during the current year.  Changes oc­curred in several balance sheet accounts as follows:

Accrued interest payable

$17,000 decrease

Prepaid interest

23,000 decrease

In its income statement for the current year, what amount should Ness report as interest expense?

Answer C is correct.  The requirement is to calculate the amount of interest expense for the year.  Answer C is correct because the amount is calculated as cash paid for interest minus the decrease in accrued interest payable and plus the amount of decrease in prepaid interest, or $76,000 = $70,000 – $17,000 + $23,000.

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Mars
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Posted: 03 May 2011 at 15:08 | IP Logged  

The general rule is
Asset is inverse, the asset decrease -> add the amount
Liab. is direct, the liab. decrease -> deduct the amount

there is a logic behind it
We need to go from the cash paid to the expense,

* as accrued interest expense decrease, this means the payment was not totally for expense of the current year,
we paid also expense of prior year, and hence we subtract this decrease.
* as prepaid expense decreased this means, there is an expense that was not paid this year, and since we are calculating the expense, so this decrease should be added to calculate the expense of the year.

Please let me know if it is not clear.

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THANK YOU CPANET.
IT IS A LONG STORY.
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Naifation
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Joined: 16 Apr 2009
Location: United States
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Posted: 04 May 2011 at 03:25 | IP Logged  

Thanks, Its help

My problem in direct method, I got confuesed

If you have a link or idea of how to fully understand it

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